Dear Len:

There seems to be some misunderstanding about being "sterile" and being "perpetually impotent".

Sterility does not in itself cause a person to be incapable of sexual intercourse. If a person is sterile, they may still get married. If a married person who later becomes sterile, or otherwise not able to have children, they may still have sexual intercourse (since the marital embrace includes the bonding of the couple and not just for procreation).

As for a infertile (sterile) man, he still may not morally have a non-vaginal ejaculation. Medical infertility is not an absolute. If nothing else God could perform a miracle to create fertility where there was none. Abraham's wife was infertile (beyond child-bearing years) yet still got pregnant.

A single person, man or woman, who is permanently impotent and thus physically incapable of having sexual intercourse may not get married. A married person who later becomes permanently impotent still remains validly married. Sexual intercourse will obviously no longer be part of their marital life, but that does not mean that the couple cannot experience other forms of intimacy.

From my understanding that "other forms of intimacy" may include all the activities that constitute "foreplay", including the climax of the woman, as long as the man does not have a non-vaginal ejaculation.

I presume what you are referring to in using the term "self-masturbation" is that a couple could "masturbate each other". I dealt with this subject in a previous answer.

Mutual self-giving is present in sexual play between husband and wife. While there is such a thing as mutual masturbation, even in a marriage, such activity is done for its own sake as an act of sexual desire alone, rather than a mutual self-giving of love. Within the context of this mutual self-giving in love, foreplay sexual activities do not constitute mutual masturbation.

God Bless,
Bro. Ignatius Mary